Date: Dec 15, 2015
Time: 1 hour 15 minutes
(01)
The word
‘secular’ was inserted into the Constitution of India by
[A] 44th
Amendment Act
[B] 52nd
Amendment Act
[C] 42nd
Amendment Act
[D] 34th
Amendment Act
(02)
The two
provisions of the Constitution of India that most clearly express the power of
judicial review are
[A]
Article 21 and Article 446
[B]
Article 32 and Article 226
[C]
Article 44 and Article 152
[D]
Article 17 and Article 143
(03)
An
emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can be declared only
during
[A] war,
external aggression or internal disturbance
[B] war,
external aggression or armed rebellion
[C]
failure of constitutional machinery in the State
[D] financial
instability in the country
(04)
The
Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with
[A]
provisions related to the administration of tribal areas
[B]
allocation of seats in the Council of States
[C] the
Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List
[D]
recognised languages of the Union of India
(05)
The
‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ was enunciated by the Supreme Court during the
[A]
Golaknath Case
[B]
Maneka Gandhi Case
[C]
Kesavananda Bharati Case
[D] S. R.
Bommai Case
(06)
The
Panchayati Raj system under Part – IX of the Constitution of India does not
apply to the States of
[A]
Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland
[B]
Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura
[C]
Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram
[D]
Sikkim, Tripura and Meghalaya
(07)
Who has been vested with the power by the Constitution to permit any
Member of Parliament who cannot adequately express himself / herself in Hindi
or in English to address the House in his /her mother tongue?
[A] Chairman of the Council of States or the person acting as such
in the House
[B] Speaker on the House of the People or the person acting as such
in the House
[C] Leader of the House
[D] Both [A] and [B]
(08)
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between
the Centre and the States falls under its
[A] advisory jurisdiction
[B] appellate jurisdiction
[C] original jurisdiction
[D] writ jurisdiction
(09)
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of
India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
(10)
Match:
|
List – I
|
List – II
|
||
|
(a)
|
Comptroller
and Auditor General of India
|
1
|
Article
178
|
|
(b)
|
Audit
Reports
|
2
|
Article
148
|
|
(c)
|
Duration
of State Legislature
|
3
|
Article
155
|
|
(d)
|
Appointment
of Governor
|
4
|
Article
151
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 2 3 1 4
[B] 2 4 1 3
[C] 3 4 2 1
[D] 3 2 1 4
(11)
Which one
of the following is in the concurrent list of the Constitution of India?
[A]
Treasure Trove
[B]
Population control and Family Planning
[C]
Public health and sanitation
[D]
Capitation taxes
(12)
In case of any difference between the two Houses of Parliament on an
'Ordinary Bill', the same is resolved by
[A] The
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
[B] A
joint committee of the two Houses
[C] The
President
[D]
Convening a joint sitting of the two Houses
(13)
The
correct statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy are -
1. They
are incorporated in Part - V of the Constitution
2. They
are borrowed from the Irish Constitution
3. The
State must compulsorily implement them
4. They
seek to provide social and economic base to democracy
[A] 1 and
3 only
[B] 2 and
4 only
[C] 1, 2
and 3 only
[D] 1 and
2 only
(14)
Which
among the following political party of India has an election symbol very
similar to the election symbol of Republican Party of USA?
[A]
Samajwadi Party
[B]
Bahujan Samaj Party
[C] Janta
Dal (United)
[D]
Telugu Desam Party
(15)
How many
members, the President of India can nominate to Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha,
respectively?
[A] 12, 2
[B] 2, 12
[C] 2, 10
[D] 10, 2
(16)
Which
among the following amendments to the Constitution of India, designated Delhi
as National Capital Territory (NCT)?
[A] 63rd
Amendment Act
[B] 69th
Amendment Act
[C] 74th
Amendment Act
[D] 76th
Amendment Act
(17)
Which among the following schedules of the Indian Constitution deals
with forms of Oaths or Affirmations?
[A]
Second Schedule
[B] Third
Schedule
[C]
Fourth Schedule
[D] Fifth
Schedule
(18)
Indian
Constitution provides for promotion of international peace and security. Which
of the following deals with this provision?
[A]
Article 51 of the Directive Principles of the State Policy
[B] It is
implied by the Preamble of the Indian Constitution
[C] The
12th Schedule of the Indian Constitution
[D]
Article 392 empowers the President in this regard
(19)
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution is regarded as
the ‘precursor’ to the proclamation of an emergency in a State?
[A] Article 352
[B] Article 356
[C] Article 360
[D] Article 365
(20)
Consider the following statements:
1. There are 24 High Courts in India
2. The States of Nagaland and Mizoram do not have their own High
Courts
3. The States of Sikkim and Meghalaya have their own High Court
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
[A] 2 only
[B] 1 and 2 only
[C] 1, 2 and 3
[D] 2 and 3 only
(21)
How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Councils by
the Governor?
[A] One – third
[B] One – twelfth
[C] One – eighth
[D] One – sixth
(22)
Which of the following Cabinet Committees is not chaired by the
Prime Minister?
[A] Political Affairs Committee
[B] Appointments Committee
[C] Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
[D] Economic Affairs Committee
(23)
Who/which of the following can abolish a State Legislative Council?
[A] Parliament
[B] President
[C] Governor
[D] State Assembly
(24)
Match:
|
List – I
|
List – II
|
||
|
(a)
|
Executive Authority of President
|
1
|
Article 56
|
|
(b)
|
Tenure of President
|
2
|
Article 55
|
|
(c)
|
Election of President
|
3
|
Article 61
|
|
(d)
|
Impeachment of President
|
4
|
Article 53
|
|
|
5
|
Article 54
|
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 4 1 2 3
[B] 4 1 5 3
[C] 4 5 2 3
[D] 4 2 5 3
(25)
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
[A] A money bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States
[B] The Council of States has no power to reject or amend a money
bill
[C] The Council of Ministers is responsible to the House of the
People and not to the Council of States
[D] The House of the People has special powers with respect to the
State List compared to the Council of States
(26)
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(I) The directive principles are meant to establish Political
Democracy.
(II) The directive principles are meant to establish Social
Democracy.
(III) The directive principles are meant to establish Economic
Democracy.
[A] I only
[B] II and III only
[C] I and III only
[D] I, II and III
(27)
While proclamation of emergency is in operation, the duration of the
Lok Sabha can be extended for period
[A] not exceeding six months
[B] of one year at a time
[C] of two years at a time
[D] depends on the President’s decision
(28)
The first no confidence motion moved in the Lok Sabha after
independence was in the year
[A] 1954
[B] 1960
[C] 1963
[D] 1975
(29)
When a resolution for the removal of Speaker is under consideration
of the House
[A] The Speaker can preside at the sitting of the House
[B] The Speaker can speak and take part in the proceedings of the
house at such a time but cannot vote
[C] The Speaker cannot speak and take part in the proceedings of the
House at such a time
[D] The Speaker cannot preside at the sitting of the House, though
he may be present
(30)
The President can remove the Chairman or any member of the State
Public Service Commission for misbehaviour. In this situation:
(I) The President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court
(II) The Advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is
binding on the President
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A] I only
[B] II only
[C] Both I and II
[D] Neither I nor II
(31)
The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment
[A] need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the
Parliament, but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
[B] need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the
Parliament, but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
[C] must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
[D] must be a member of the Lok Sabha
(32)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act was passed during the period
of
[A] Rajiv Gandhi
[B] Atal Bihari Vajpayee
[C] Vishwanath Pratap Singh
[C] Narasimha Rao
(33)
The doctrine of fundamental rights cannot be amended under Article
368 was propounded by the Supreme Court in which of the following case?
[A] Gopalan Vs State of Madras
[B] Keshavanand Vs State of Kerala
[C] Golaknath Vs State of Punjab
[D] Menaka Gandhi Vs Union of India
(34)
Which Article of the Constitution of India gives provision to set up
village panchayats?
[A] Article 15
[B] Article 25
[C] Article 243
[D] Article 42
(35)
Match:
|
List – I
|
List – II
|
||
|
(a)
|
Dispute between Union and State Government
|
1
|
Judicial
review
|
|
(b)
|
Declaring a law unconstitutional
|
2
|
Original
jurisdiction
|
|
(c)
|
Appeal from High Court
|
3
|
High
Court
|
|
(d)
|
Single integrated judiciary
|
4
|
Supreme
Court
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 2 1 4 3
[B] 2 4 1 3
[C] 3 4 1 2
[D] 3 1 4 2
(36)
Which of the following provisions came into force even before the
commencement of the Constitution of India?
[A] Fundamental Rights
[B] Citizenship
[C] Directive Principles of State Policy
[D] Amendments to the Constitution
(37)
Which
Article deals with Administrative Tribunals?
[A]
Article 323
[B]
Article 323 A
[C]
Article 323 B
[D]
Article 323 D
(38)
The
National Commission for Women was set up in
[A] 1992
[B] 1993
[C] 1994
[D] 1995
(39)
Which is
the first state in India where Panchayat Raj system was implemented?
[A]
Andhra Pradesh
[B]
Rajasthan
[C] Tamil
Nadu
[D]
Maharashtra
(40)
Which one
of the following language is not included in the eighth Schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
[A]
Maithili
[B] Dogri
[C] Tulu
[D]
Santhali
(41)
Match:
|
List – I
|
List – II
|
||
|
(a)
|
Part – II
|
1
|
Directive
Principles of State Policy
|
|
(b)
|
Part – IV
|
2
|
State
Governments
|
|
(c)
|
Part – VI
|
3
|
Amendment
|
|
(d)
|
Part – XX
|
4
|
Citizenship
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 4 1 2 3
[B] 4 1 3 2
[C] 1 4 2 3
[D] 2 1 4 3
(42)
Match:
|
List – I
|
List – II
|
||
|
(a)
|
24th Amendment
|
1
|
Abolition
of Right to Property
|
|
(b)
|
42nd Amendment
|
2
|
Anti
defection Law
|
|
(c)
|
44th Amendment
|
3
|
Fundamental
Duties
|
|
(d)
|
52nd Amendment
|
4
|
Supremacy
of Parliament over Fundamental Rights
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 4 3 2 1
[B] 3 4 2 1
[C] 4 3 1 2
[D] 1 4 3 2
(43)
_____ of
the Constitution prohibits the state from arbitrarily arresting any person
[A]
Article 22
[B]
Article 23
[C]
Article 24
[D]
Article 25
(44)
Consider the following statement(s):
1. Next to Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu has the maximum
number of representatives in the Upper House of the Parliament.
2. Next to Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu has the maximum
number of representatives in the Lower House of the Parliament.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
[A] 1
only
[B] 2
only
[C] Both
1 and 2
[D]
Neither 1 nor 2
(45)
Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies in India are carved out by
Delimitation Commissions which have been constituted ____ times so far
[A] three
[B] four
[C] five
[D] six
(46)
Which of
the following is NOT correct?
[A] The
Supreme Command of the Defence Forces is vested in the President.
[B] The
three Chiefs of Staff (Army, Navy & Air Force) are under the direct control
of the President.
[C] The
responsibility of National Defence rests with the Union Cabinet
[D] All
important questions having a bearing on defence are decided by the Cabinet
Committee on Political Affairs under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister.
(47)
What is
the position of a 'Minister of State' in the Central Government?
[A] He is
the nominee of the State Governor.
[B] He is
the nominee of the State Cabinet.
[C] He
looks after the interests of the State Cabinet.
[D] He is
a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.
(48)
The
Chairman of Rajya Sabha in India is elected by the members of ___
1. Rajya
Sabha 2. Lok Sabha 3. Members of legislative Assembly
[A] Only
1
[B] 1 and
2 only
[C] 1, 2
& 3
[D]None
of them
(49)
The
various Amendments of Citizenship Act in 1986 have resulted in the following:
1. Dual
Citizenship 2. Voting right at the age of 18 yrs
3.
Difficulty in acquiring citizenship by refugees of Sri Lanka, Bangladesh etc.
Which
among the above is / are correct?
[A] 1 and
3 only
[B] 2 and
3 only
[C] 3
only
[D] 1, 2
and 3
(50)
The Directive Principles of State policy, though attractive, are not
enforceable by law. But there is one among the given options, which has been so
far made enforceable by a Supreme Court fiat. Identify that DPSP from the given
options:
[A] Uniform Civil Code
[B] Free Education till the children complete age of 6 years
(provision after 86th amendment act)
[C] Equal pay for equal work
[D] Prohibition of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are
injurious to health
(51)
What is contained in the tenth schedule of the constitution?
[A] Languages recognised by constitution
[B] Forms of oath or affirmation
[C] Laws that cannot be challenged in any court of law
[D] Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
(52) The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the
Constitution is now?
[A] 548
[B] 542
[C] 545
[D] 552
(53)
According to the Constitution of India, a new all India Service can
be instituted with the initiative taken by
[A] More than two-thirds of the States
[B] The inter-state Council
[C] The Lok Sabha
[D] The Rajya Sabha
(54)
Match:
|
List – I (Functionaries)
|
List – II (Oaths / Affirmations)
|
||
|
(a)
|
President of India
|
1
|
Secrecy of information
|
|
(b)
|
Judges of Supreme Court
|
2
|
Faithful discharge of duties
|
|
(c)
|
Members of Parliament
|
3
|
Faith and allegiance to the Constitution of
India
|
|
(d)
|
Minister for the Union
|
4
|
Upholding the Constitution and the law
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 3 4 1 2
[B] 4 3 2 1
[C] 3 4 2 1
[D] 4 3 1 2
(55)
Arrange the
following Vice-Presidents in chronological order:-
1. Shri.
Shankar Dayal Sharma 2. Shri. R.
Venkataraman
3. Shri.
K.R. Narayanan 4. Shri. Krishna Kant
[A] 1, 2,
3, 4
[B] 2, 1,
3, 4
[C] 2, 1,
4, 3
[D] 1, 2,
4, 3
(56)
Match:
|
List – I
(Political Parties)
|
List – II
(Symbols)
|
||
|
(a)
|
Biju Janata Dal (BJD)
|
1
|
|
|
(b)
|
Samajwadi Party (SP)
|
2
|
|
|
(c)
|
Telugu Desam Party (TDP)
|
3
|
|
|
(d)
|
Shiromani Akali Dai (SAD)
|
4
|
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 2 1 4 3
[B] 2 1 3 4
[C] 1 2 3 4
[D] 1 2 4 3
(57)
Right to
Information Act 2005 is based on
[A]
Articles 19 and 21
[B]
Articles 14 - 18
[C]
Articles 23 and 24
[D] Article
28
(58)
"Formation
of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing
States"
Which
Article of the Indian Constitution says the above?
[A] Article
1
[B] Article
2
[C] Article
3
[D] Article
4
(59)
Which among
the following statement is / are correct?
1. At the
time of appointment, the Chief Minister must be a member of either State
Assembly or State Legislative Council
2. At the
time of appointment, the Prime Minister must be a member of either Lok Sabha or
Rajya Sabha
Choose the
correct option from the codes given below:
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1
and 2
[D] Neither
1 nor 2
(60)
Narendra
Modi with his 45-member Council of Ministers was sworn-in by the President on
26 May 2014. According to which Article of Constitution of India, the President
administered their oath?
[A] Article
72
[B] Article
73
[C] Article
74
[D] Article
75
(61)
President of
India on 20 May 2014 appointed Narendra Modi as the Prime Minister of India. He
appointed Modi as the Prime Minister in accordance to which Article of
Constitution of India?
[A] Article
73 (1)
[B] Article
75 (1)
[C] Article
76 (1)
[D] Article
77 (1)
(62)
Supreme
Court gave a judgement that Candidates fighting elections can be disqualified
if they fail to disclose information about assets and liabilities of even their
spouse and dependent children. According to which Article of the Constitution
of India, do the citizens have the right to know the information about
candidate’s assets and liabilities?
[A] Article
21
[B] Article
30 (a)
[C] Article
19 (a)
[D] Article
14
(63)
Consider
the following statement(s):
1. It is on
the advice of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha that the president of India summons
and prorogues Parliament and dissolves the Lok Sabha
2. The
resignation of the Prime Minister means the resignation of the entire Council
of Ministers
3. A vote
of confidence against one Minister in Lok Sabha means the vote of confidence
against the entire Council of Ministers
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
[A] 1 and 2
only
[B] 2 and 3
only
[C] 1 and 3
only
[D] 1, 2
and 3
(64)
Which one
among the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
[A] Union
List – Banking
[B] State
List – Agriculture
[C]
Concurrent List – Marriage
[D]
Residuary List – Education
(65)
Which of
the following are essential components of an EVM, without which process of
voting and counting is impossible?
1. Balloting
unit 2. VVPAT 3. Control unit
4. EVM
totalizer 5. Auxiliary display unit
[A] 1, 2
and 3 only
[B] 1 and 3
only
[C] 1, 3
and 5 only
[D] 1, 3, 4
and 5 only
(66)
What is the
use of form 20 in the elections?
[A]
Earlier, to use NOTA, we had to fill up this form
[B] Police
and defense personnel use this form to cast postal ballot
[C] To file
nomination, the candidate has to fill up his income, assets, criminal cases
etc. as per the format given in this form.
[D]
Election Commission will show polling station wise result according to this
form.
(67)
Following
are imaginary headlines in a newspaper. Which one of them will get the Chief
Election Commissioner nervous?
[A] A
Banglore techie-blogger claims he can overwrite the code in EVM circuit via
wifi to make it record 6000 votes in a minute.
[B] Mr. X
asked 70 of his goons to file nominations along with him in the same
Constituency. IB report says he also has plans for booth capturing.
[C] Mr. Y
has hired the techie mentioned in option A, and is planning for booth “hacking”
through van of a media channel.
[D] None of
the above
(68)
Which of the following is/are incorrect?
1. Since Independence, Indian Presidents have a long tradition of
voting through a special polling booth within Rashtrapati bhawan.
2. President Pranab Mukherjee is the first President of India who
did not cast vote in Lok Sabha election.
[A] I only
[B] II only
[C] Both I and II
[D] Neither I nor II
(69)
Who pays for the cost of EVMs Lok Sabha election?
[A] 100% by Union government
[B] Union and States bear 50:50 sharing
[C] Each state depending on number of polling booths
[D] Money from a special election fund, where each state has to
contribute depending on number of Lok Sabha seats in their territory
(70)
What is Pramati Judgement?
[A] Article 21A is part of the basic structure of Constitution
[B] The state is empowered to enforce reservation in any private
institution to implement Article 21A
[C] The state is empowered to enforce reservation even on linguistic
and religious basis, to implement Article 21A.
[D] The state cannot interfere in minority institutions to enforce
Article 21A.
(71)
Under representation of people’s act
1. Canvassing near the polling booth is a non-cognizable offense.
2. No person can publicize election matter through TV, radio etc. 72
hours before the conclusion of polls.
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
(72)
As per the criteria of Election Commission, a party can be called as
a ‘State Party’ if all its candidates get minimum of ___ votes
[A] 8%
[B] 10%
[C] 4%
[D] 6%
(73)
Match:
|
List – I
|
List – II
|
||
|
(a)
|
Article 74
(1)
|
1
|
There shall be Council of Ministers with PM
as its head to aid and advice the President who shall, in exercise of his
functions act in accordance with such advice
|
|
(b)
|
Article 75
(1)
|
2
|
Prime Minister shall be appointed by the
President and other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the
advice of Prime Minister
|
|
(c)
|
Article 75
(5)
|
3
|
A person not belonging to any House can be
appointed as a Minister but he has to get elected to either House within the
period of six months
|
|
(d)
|
Article 78
|
4
|
Prime Minister is the principal channel of
communication between the President and the Council of Ministers
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 1 2 3 4
[B] 2 1 3 4
[C] 1 2 4 3
[D] 2 1 4 3
(74)
Consider
the following statements:
1. An
amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a
bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such
an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the
Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of
all the States of India.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1
and 2
[D] Neither
1 nor 2
(75)
Consider
the following statements:
1. The
Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the
Parliament.
2. The
Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of
India.
3. The
Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for
Legislation.
Which of
the above statement(s) is/are NOT correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 and 3
only
[C] 1 and 3
only
[D] 1, 2
and 3
(76)
Who of the following is not associated the election of Vice -
President of India?
1. Nominated Members of Lok Sabha
2. Nominated Members of Rajya Sabha
3. Elected Members of Legislative Assemblies
4. Elected Members of Legislative Councils
[A] 1 and 3 only
[B] 2 and 4 only
[C] 3 and 4 only
[D] 1 and 2 only
(77)
Who said that, "Prime Minister is the captain of the ship of
the State?"
[A] Munro
[B] Ramsay Muir
[C] Jennings
[D] H.J. Laski
(78)
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A):
The Constitution of India contains seven Fundamental Rights at the
beginning
Reason (R1):
Now the Constitution of India classified the Fundamental Rights
under five groups
Reason (R2):
Right to Property has been abolished by the 44th Amendment Act, 1976
[A] (A) is true and (R1) along with (R2) correctly explains (A)
[B] (A) is true; (R1) alone is true while (R2) is false
[C] (A) is true; (R1) is false while (R2) is true
[D] (A) is true; Both (R1) and (R2) are false
(79)
Match:
|
List – I
|
List – II
|
||
|
(a)
|
President
|
1
|
Real head in the State Executive
|
|
(b)
|
Prime
Minister
|
2
|
The First Citizen of India
|
|
(c)
|
Chief
Minister
|
3
|
Nominal Head in the State Executive
|
|
(d)
|
Governor
|
4
|
Head of the Government of India
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 1 2 3 4
[B] 2 4 1 3
[C] 4 2 1 3
[D] 2 1 3 4
(80)
Match:
|
List – I
|
List – II
|
||
|
(a)
|
Fundamental
Duties
|
1
|
Part IV
|
|
(b)
|
Directive Principles
of State policy
|
2
|
Part IV – A
|
|
(c)
|
Village
Panchayats
|
3
|
Part IX – A
|
|
(d)
|
Urban Local
Governments
|
4
|
Part IX
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 1 2 3 4
[B] 2 4 1 3
[C] 4 2 1 3
[D] 2 1 3 4
(81)
Which Article is called as “Soul and Heart” of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Article 46
[B] Article 42
[C] Article 32
[D] Article 35
(82)
Consider the following statements:
1. Secretariat is the nerve centre of the State Administration
2. District is the basic unit of administration in India
3. The District Collector is the head of the District Administration
4. Governor is the administrative head of the State Administration
[A] 1 and 2 are correct; 3 and 4 are wrong
[B] 1, 2 and 3 are correct; 4 is wrong
[C] 1 and 3 are correct; 2 and 4 are wrong
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(83)
Pick the wrong:
[A] Indian Constitution is a written one
[B] Indian Constitution consists of features of both flexible and
rigid Constitutions
[C] Indian Constitution establishes a Secular State
[D] Indian Constitution is against the Federal System of Government
(84)
Match:
|
List – I
|
List – II
|
||
|
(a)
|
Article 153
|
1
|
National Emergency
|
|
(b)
|
Article 163
|
2
|
Governor
|
|
(c)
|
Article 352
|
3
|
State Emergency
|
|
(d)
|
Article 356
|
4
|
Chief Minister
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[A] 3 2 4 1
[B] 1 3 4 2
[C] 4 3 2 1
[D] 2 4 1 3
(85)
In 1948, the first linguistic Provinces Commission was headed by
[A] Sitaramiah
[B] Fazal Ali
[C] S K Dar
[D] M P Sivagnanam
(86)
No-Confidence Motion, to be admitted in the Lok Sabha, needs the
support of
[A] 80 Members
[B] 140 Members
[C] 160 Members
[D] 50 Members
(87)
The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for
Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is
[A] Bihar
[B] Gujarat
[C] Uttar Pradesh
[D] Madhya Pradesh
(88)
Find incorrect statement(s)
1. PIO card entitles a person lifelong visa-free entry in India
2. If an OCI-card holder stays in India beyond 6 months, he is
required to get registered at local police station
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
(89)
Under MPLADS scheme, a Nominated member of parliament
[A] can recommend projects only for backward districts earmarked by
PMO
[B] can recommend projects only in his domicile state
[C] can recommend projects for any district of any state
[D] can recommend projects only for trial areas earmarked by PMO
(90)
Consider the following posts:
1. CVC 2. CIC 3. NHRC
In which of the above post(s), Leader of Opposition (Lok Sabha) is
required in selecting
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
(91)
The scheme “District level Incubation and Accelerator Programme”
comes under the Ministry of
[A] Commerce and Industries
[B] Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
[C] Youth Affairs and Sports
[D] Tribal Affairs
(92)
Consider the following statement(s) in regard with the National
Heritage Development and Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY):
1. The project will be implemented on Central-State basis (Centre
having 75% share and State having 25% share)
2. 12 cities are selected for this project
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
(93)
Which part of Constitution is “instrument of instructions”?
[A] Article 370
[B] Fundamental Duties
[C] Directive Principles of State Policy
[D] Article 368
(94)
In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and
security is included in the
[A] Preamble
[B] Directive Principles of State Policy
[C] Fundamental Duties
[D] Ninth Schedule
(95)
Which of the following provisions can be amended by “Special
Majority of Parliament and Consent of States”?
1. Fundamental Rights 2.
Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Seventh Schedule 4. Elections connection with
President
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 1, 2 and 3 only
[C] 1, 3 and 4 only
[D] 3 and 4 only
(96)
An ordinance can be made by President on:
1. When both Houses of Parliament are not in session
2. When only one House is in session
3. Decision of the President to issue an Ordinance can be questioned
in a Court
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 1 and 3 only
[C] 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
(97)
The Supreme Court under ____ is empowered to review an judgment or
order made by it with a view to remove any mistake or error that might have
crept in the judgment or order
[A] 143
[B] 134
[C] 137
[D] 147
(98)
Which of the following is not correct?
1. Preamble was not a part of Indian Constitution: Keshvananda
Bharati Case
2. Preamble was part of Indian Constitution: Berubari Case
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
(99)
Pick the ‘Acting Presidents’ of India from the following lists:
1. B. D. Jatti 2.
V. V. Giri
3. Zakir Hussain 4. Neelam
Sanjeeva Reddy
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1, 2 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4
(100)
Consider the following statements:
1. There are 22 Parts in Indian Constitution
2. There are 12 Schedules in Indian Constitution
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
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Questions taken from:
Indian Polity – Lakshmikanth
Previous TNPSC, UPSC, Bank, SSC Question Papers
Indian Constitution – Wizard Publications
====THE END====è
The above questions in pdf [Click Here]
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