TNPSC
GROUP I [NOV 2015]
PRELIMINARY
EXAM
INDIAN POLITY
(01)
Consider
the following two statements consisting of Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and
select your answer using the codes given below.
Assertion
(A): The administrative reforms commission recommended Lokpal and Lokayukta
Reasoning
(R): These are for the Redressal of Citizens grievances
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is
the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is
not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is True but R is false
(D) A is false but R is correct
Answer: (B)
(02)
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Article 153 – Office of the
Governor
(B) Article 156 – Term of the Governor
(C) Article 154 – Executive authority
of Governor
(D) Article 155 – Removal of Governor
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Article 153: Governors of State
Article 154:
Article 155: Appointment of Governor
Article
156: Term of Governor
(03)
Match the following – Establishment of states and choose the correct
one
States
|
|||
(a)
|
36th Amendment
|
1
|
Goa
|
(b)
|
13th Amendment
|
2
|
Manipur and Tripura
|
(c)
|
27th Amendment
|
3
|
Sikkim
|
(d)
|
56th Amendment
|
4
|
Nagaland
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 1 2 3 4
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
It is impossible for all to remember
each and every article / amendment so we have to choose the answer by trial and
error method.
Here Goa is given – it is trump card;
we all knew Goa is one of the last State to be formed; so see the amendment
which is latest (56th Amendment); so this 56th Amendment must fit for Goa. See
the options; with this we have only one option as answer (A)
(04)
Article 25 of the Constitution of India guarantees
(A) Right to Religion
(B) Right to Property
(C) Right to life
(D) Right to equality
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
It’s a direct question; in general
TNPSC has habit of asking any Fundamental Rights in almost all of their exams
(05)
Which one of the following is not a formally prescribed device
available to the members of Parliament?
(A) Question Hour
(B) Zero Hour
(C) Half-an-hour discussion
(D) Short duration discussion
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Question
Hour: First hour of every parliamentary sitting
is slotted for this’ during this time, the members ask questions and the
Minister usually give answers; the answers are of three kinds – starred,
unstarred and short notice
Zero
Hour: Unlike the Question Hour, the Zero Hour is not mentioned in the Rules of
Procedure. Thus it is an informal device available to members without any
piror notice
Half-an-hour
discussion: It is meant for discussing a matter of
sufficient public importance, which has been subjected to a lot of debate; the
Speaker can allot three days in a week for such discussion; there is no formal
motion or voting before the House
Short
duration discussion: Also known as Two-hour discussion as the time allotted for such a discussion
should not exceed two hours; members can raise such discussions on a matter of
urgent importance; Speaker can allot two days in a week for such discussions;
there is no formal motion or voting before the House
(06)
The National Commission to review the working of the Constitution
was set-up in the year
(A) 2001
(B) 2004
(C) 2003
(D) 2002
Answer: (A) or (D)
Explanation:
National Commission to review the
working of the Constitution also known as Justice
Venkatachaliah Commission was set by NDA Government of India led by Atal
Bihari Vajpayee (Feb 22, 2000) for suggesting possible amendments to the
Constitution of India.
The Commission submitted its report on
Mar 31, 2002
If 2000 was in the option, it is the
right answer
But here no such option….
So, “Luck” will decide whether it is
(A) or (D)
(07)
Which one of the following amendment was called a revision of the
constitution and it introduced changes in preamble, as many as 53 articles and
seventh schedule?
(A) 40th amendment
(B) 42nd amendment
(C) 41st amendment
(D) 43rd amendment
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
It is almost a direct question; 42nd
Amendment is called as Mini Constitution;
mainly on the recommendations of Swaran
Singh Committee
(08)
Which is/are correct relating to the Tribunals?
1. Part XV of the Indian constitution deals with the Tribunals.
2. Article 323 A deals with Administrative tribunals and Article 323
B deals with the tribunals for other matters.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Part XIV - Services under the Union,
the States
Part XIV A - Tribunals
Part XV – Elections
(09)
Consider the following statements:
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is responsible for the
audit of the accounts of
1. The Union Govt.
2. State Govts.
3. The governments of Union territories
4. The Urban and rural local bodies
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
CAG comes under Article 148;
Bulwarks of the democratic system of
Indian Government: Supreme Court, Election Commission of India, Union Public
Service Commission and CAG
CAG is appointed by the President of
India
We all know CAG submits reports for
Union and State Governments; news on such thing came on several times on
newspapers; so in options 1 and 2 must be there
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2,
3 and 4
(C) 1,
3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Now, the question is, whether it is 3
or 4;
CAG can audit the accounts of any
authority when requested by the President or the Governor (Ex: Audit of Local
Bodies) so 4 is left out; for 3, am unable to find any reliable source, so I go
with (A)
(10)
What is the peculiar nature of the Indian Federation?
(A) Equal distribution of powers
between the centre and state
(B) Strong centre
(C) Strong states
(D) Strong Local bodies
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Federal Features of Indian
Constitution
|
Unitary / Non – Federal Features of
Indian Constitution
|
1. Dual Polity
2. Written Constitution
3. Division of Powers
4. Supremacy of the Constitution
5. Rigid Constitution
6. Independent Judiciary
7. Bicameralism
|
1. Strong Centre
2. States not indestructible
3. Single Constitution
4. Flexibility of the Constitution
5. No equality of State
Representation
6. Emergency provision
7. Single Citizenship
8. Integrated Judiciary
9. All India Services
10. Integrated Audit Machinery
11. Parliament’s authority over
State list
12. Appointment of Governor
13. Integrated Election Machinery
14. Veto over State Bills
|
(11)
The Administrative Reforms Commission of India was set up on 5 Jan.
1966 under the Chairmanship of
(A) K. Hanumanthaiya
(B) H.C. Mathur
(C) G.S. Pathak
(D) Moraji R. Desai
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
First chaired by Moraji Desai and
later by K. Hanumanthaiya after Moraji desai became Deputy Prime Minister of
India
I ARC: in 1966: by Moraji Desai and
then later by K. Hanumanthaiah
II ARC: in 2005: by Veerappa Moily
(12)
“The Supreme Court in the Indian union has more powers than any
other Supreme Court in any part of the world” – Who said so?
(A) S.M. Sikri
(B) Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
(C) M. C. Setalwad
(D) Justice Kania
Answer: (B)
(13)
Which one of the following statement is/are true with regard to
formulation of the government?
(A) There is a rule in the business of
the government which mentions that single largest party that gets majority will
form the government
(B) There is no written rule on
inviting the single largest party by the 2nd largest party to form the
government. It is a convention
(C) There is a provision in Part I of
the Constitution
(D) Representation of Peoples Act
provides for inviting the longest party to form the government
Answer: (B)
(14)
The Protection of Civil Rights Act came into force on
(A) 19th December 1974
(B) 19th November 1976
(C) 19th December 1975
(D) 19th November 1977
Answer: (B)
(15)
Who one of the following persons is the ex-officio chairmen of the
Rules Committee, General Purpose Committee and business Advisory Committee?
(A) The Speaker
(B) A member elected by the house
(C) The Deputy Speaker
(D) A member of Ruling Party
Answer: (A)
(16)
Which of the following are major features of the constitutions of
Lokpal and Lokayukta as recommended by the Administrative Reforms commission?
1. They should be demonstrably independent and impartial
2. They should compare with the highest judicial functionary in the
country.
3. They should be directly accountable to parliament
4. Their appointments should as far as possible be non-political
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) None of the above (or) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B)
(17)
The Indian Constitution describes legislative relations between
Union and States in Article from
(A) Articles 245 to 255
(B) Articles 256 to 263
(C) Articles 264 to 267
(D) Articles 268 to 276
Answer: (A)
(18)
Match the list:
(a)
|
Fourth Schedule
|
1
|
Division of Powers
|
(b)
|
Seventh Schedule
|
2
|
Seats allotted in the Council of States
|
(c)
|
Eleventh Schedule
|
3
|
Languages
|
(d)
|
Eighth Schedule
|
4
|
73 rd Amendment
|
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 2 4 3
Answer: (B)
(19)
Which of the following recommendations are made by the
Administrative Reforms Commission to improve relations between the political
and permanent executive?
i. Minister should try to develop a climate of fearless and fair
play among senior officers.
ii. Minister should not intervene in day-to-day administration
except incase of servous maladministration.
iii. The official relationship of Secretary to Minister should be
one of confidence of that of minister to Secretary one of loyalty.
iv. Prime Minister should takes special interest to arrest/growing
of unhealthy personal affiliations.
v. All major decisions should be briefly reduced to writings
(A) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 5
Answer: (A)
(20)
In which one of the case, “Passport” is considered as part of
personal liberty?
(A) A. K. Gopalan (1950)
(B) Indian Express Newspapers (1985)
(C) Arumugham (1953)
(D) Meneka Gandhi (1978)
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Maneka Gandhi vs Union Of India on 25
January, 1978
(21)
Which of the schedules deals with division of powers between states
and union?
(A) Fourth
(B) Sixth
(C) Seventh
(D) Ninth
Answer: (C)
(22)
Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional
amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not
less than One-Half of the states?
1.
Election of the president
2.
Representation of state in Parliament
3. Any of
the lists in the 7th Schedule
4.
Abolition of the legislative council of a state
Choose
the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Abolition of the legislative council
of a State is by simple Majority only. So options with 4 are removed and hence
we left with (A) alone
Amendments: Article 368; Part XX
Some of provisions which can be
amended by Simple Majority:
(1) Second Schedule
(2) Fifth Schedule
(3) Sixth Schedule
(4) Admission or Establishment of New
States
(5) Abolition or Creation of
Legislative Councils in States
Some of provisions which can be
amended by Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States:
(1) Any of the lists in the Seventh
Schedule
(2) Supreme Court and High Courts
(3) Election of President and its
manner
(4) Power of Parliament to Amend the
Constitution and its procedure
(5) Representations of States in
Parliament
Some of the provisions which can be
amended by Majority of Parliament:
(1) Fundamental Rights
(2) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(3) All other provision which is not
done by the other two
(23)
The Secession of a state from the Indian union has been barred by
the
(A) 16th Amendment
(B) 22nd Amendment
(C) 29th Amendment
(D) 35th Amendment
Answer: (A)
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